123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100 PROJECT MANAGEMENT You are welcome to Lakewood Business School Examination Portal We are delighted to have you here and wish you the very best as you embark on an exciting journey toward a rewarding career with us. Online Examinations Our online assessments are designed to evaluate your understanding of the training materials and ensure your readiness for the next step in your professional development. Here's what you need to know: Format: The assessment consists of 100 multiple-choice questions. Pass Mark: A minimum score of 50% is required to pass. Instant Results: Your answers will be automatically graded, allowing you to immediately see your results. Retake Option: If you don’t pass on your first attempt, don’t worry! You can retake the exam and try again. Need Assistance? Whether you are currently enrolled on our platform or seeking information, our dedicated support team is here to help. Feel free to reach out to us with any inquiries at admission@lwbschool.org.uk Thank you for choosing Lakewood Business School. We are committed to supporting your growth and success. 1 / 100 What is a key tool for team motivation in projects? A) Autocratic leadership B) Performance reviews C) Recognition and rewards D) High workloads 2 / 100 What is the primary goal of the initiation phase in project management? A) Execute plans B) Develop a WBS C) Define the project at a broad level D) Close contracts 3 / 100 The triple constraint in project management includes: A) Budget, authority, delegation B) Scope, time, cost C) Quality, skills, communication D) Task, reporting, review 4 / 100 The purpose of corrective actions in a project is to: A) Eliminate scope B) Align performance with plan C) Ignore change D) Delay delivery 5 / 100 What is used to visualize stakeholder engagement over time? A) RAID log B) Gantt chart C) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix D) RACI 6 / 100 What is a milestone in project scheduling? A) A type of risk B) A significant event or achievement C) A task description D) A project tool 7 / 100 Which of the following is not part of the project life cycle? A) Planning B) Executing C) Resource onboarding D) Closing 8 / 100 What is the first step in risk management? A) Quantify risks B) Create response plan C) Identify risks D) Allocate reserves 9 / 100 What’s the key value in Agile? A) Processes over people B) Comprehensive documentation C) Responding to change over following a plan D) Contract negotiation 10 / 100 Which phase involves acquiring and managing project team members? A) Planning B) Initiation C) Executing D) Closing 11 / 100 What is the primary output of the closing phase? A) Project charter B) Signed contracts C) Final product, service, or result D) Resource onboarding 12 / 100 In procurement, a Request for Proposal (RFP) is used to: A) Hire full-time staff B) Solicit bids from vendors C) Reduce taxes D) Track revenue 13 / 100 What is the key benefit of using project templates? A) Cost estimation B) Reducing schedule C) Ensures consistency and saves time D) Avoiding stakeholders 14 / 100 Who owns the product backlog in Scrum? A) Scrum Master B) Stakeholder C) Product Owner D) Project Coordinator 15 / 100 What type of dependency is mandatory and legally or contractually required? A) Discretionary B) External C) Mandatory D) Optional 16 / 100 What is a stakeholder engagement plan? A) Strategy for managing salaries B) Framework for how to involve stakeholders C) Hiring document D) Recruitment tool 17 / 100 In stakeholder management, “manage closely” applies to: A) Low power/low interest B) High power/high interest C) Low influence D) Observers 18 / 100 In Agile, the team’s velocity refers to: A) Number of hours worked B) Average story points completed per sprint C) Speed of software installation D) Task failures 19 / 100 What’s the key benefit of bottom-up estimating? A) Inaccurate assumptions B) Greater detail and accuracy C) Reduced cost D) Faster planning 20 / 100 What is the primary purpose of project integration management? A) Manage financial systems B) Combine and coordinate all project elements C) Design quality systems D) Track employee hours 21 / 100 What is a project charter? A) A risk template B) A procurement policy C) A document that formally authorizes the project D) A Gantt chart 22 / 100 What’s the purpose of the risk register? A) List vendors B) Store team data C) Identify and monitor project risks D) Archive contracts 23 / 100 What is the responsibility of a project coordinator? A) Managing multiple programs B) Supporting project managers with administrative duties C) Authorizing budgets D) Conducting audits 24 / 100 In Agile, a “sprint” typically refers to: A) A documentation phase B) A testing method C) A fixed time period to complete tasks D) A release date 25 / 100 Which contract type adjusts for market inflation? A) Time and Materials B) Fixed Price C) Cost Plus Incentive D) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment 26 / 100 The PMBOK defines project integration as: A) Team-building exercise B) Combining and coordinating processes and knowledge areas C) Simplifying reporting D) Avoiding stakeholder reviews 27 / 100 What is a RAID log used for? A) Storing design specs B) Managing risks, assumptions, issues, and dependencies C) Registering attendance D) Logging invoices 28 / 100 What is the purpose of a Gantt chart? A) Cost tracking B) Budget variance C) Visual representation of schedule D) Conflict resolution 29 / 100 What is the main output of project integration management? A) Cost savings B) A unified project plan C) Risk reports D) Vendor selection 30 / 100 The PMBOK Guide defines how many process groups? A) 3 B) 7 C) 5 D) 10 31 / 100 What is rolling wave planning? A) Making no plans B) Creating detailed plans for near-term, general for long-term C) Planning in reverse D) Planning by chance 32 / 100 What’s the primary goal of quality management? A) Minimize spending B) Increase documentation C) Ensure project meets requirements D) Assign tasks 33 / 100 What does “scope baseline” include? A) Risk register B) Scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary C) Procurement terms D) Resource tracker 34 / 100 Which of the following best defines quality assurance? A) Identifying project risks B) Evaluating deliverables C) Ensuring quality processes are followed D) Preparing financial statements 35 / 100 Earned Value Management (EVM) is primarily used in which phase? A) Closing B) Planning C) Execution D) Monitoring 36 / 100 What is a stakeholder register used for? A) Tracking employee timesheets B) Listing project scope C) Recording stakeholder details and expectations D) Storing lessons learned 37 / 100 What is the best way to handle scope creep? A) Ignore minor changes B) Fire team members C) Enforce change control process D) Let client decide scope 38 / 100 What does a burn-down chart show? A) Quality assurance metrics B) Risks by likelihood C) Work remaining in a sprint D) Contractual obligations 39 / 100 Which PM certification is globally recognized from PMI? A) CAPM B) PMP C) Six Sigma Black Belt D) ISO 9001 40 / 100 In resource planning, which is most crucial for task fit? A) Age of the employee B) Communication speed C) Skill and experience D) Years in project team 41 / 100 In Agile, “user stories” are written from the perspective of: A) The developer B) The project manager C) The end-user D) The sponsor 42 / 100 What is a project milestone chart used for? A) Assigning team roles B) Showing project budget C) Tracking significant events D) Listing quality goals 43 / 100 What is a key goal of project procurement management? A) Stakeholder analysis B) Vendor selection and contract administration C) Team formation D) Budgeting for HR 44 / 100 What is the Delphi technique used for? A) Software testing B) Conflict resolution C) Reaching expert consensus D) Scheduling 45 / 100 What’s the role of a project sponsor? A) Approve deliverables and secure funding B) Write project contracts C) Manage WBS D) Conduct QA inspections 46 / 100 What is a key responsibility of the project team during execution? A) Approving scope B) Reporting progress C) Funding the project D) Approving invoices 47 / 100 What is a functional organizational structure? A) Project teams report only to the sponsor B) Project manager has the highest authority C) Team members report to departmental heads D) Cross-functional roles are dominant 48 / 100 Who facilitates Agile ceremonies and removes impediments? A) Product Owner B) Project Sponsor C) Scrum Master D) Stakeholder 49 / 100 What’s a risk trigger? A) A budget variance B) A stakeholder conflict C) An indicator that a risk is about to occur D) A contract clause 50 / 100 What is crashing in project management? A) A project failure B) Adding resources to speed up tasks C) Reverting to earlier versions D) Breaking the budget 51 / 100 What does a Project Scope Statement include? A) Team salaries B) Deliverables, assumptions, and constraints C) Invoice list D) Gantt chart 52 / 100 When is quality planning performed? A) Execution B) Closure C) Planning D) Control 53 / 100 What is a strong matrix structure? A) Project manager has full control B) Functional managers dominate C) PM has no authority D) Multiple sponsors 54 / 100 What is the main benefit of project closure documentation? A) Reduces conflict B) Ensures lessons are captured and used C) Increases budget D) Starts new procurement 55 / 100 Which technique is used for risk probability and impact assessment? A) Control chart B) Scatter diagram C) Risk matrix D) Monte Carlo 56 / 100 Which document helps track schedule performance? A) Project charter B) Activity list C) Gantt chart D) Work authorization 57 / 100 In Agile, a daily stand-up is used to: A) Set budgets B) Finalize deliverables C) Share updates and remove blockers D) Discuss lessons learned 58 / 100 In a matrix organization, project managers typically: A) Have full authority B) Have no authority C) Share authority with functional managers D) Hire all team members 59 / 100 Who is ultimately responsible for project success? A) Contractor B) Sponsor C) Project Manager D) Functional Manager 60 / 100 Which document outlines how communication will occur in a project? A) Stakeholder register B) Communications Management Plan C) RACI chart D) Risk matrix 61 / 100 Which Agile artifact shows completed work? A) Sprint backlog B) Burndown chart C) Increment D) Story point board 62 / 100 In earned value, if SPI < 1, it means: A) The project is ahead of schedule B) The project is on time C) The project is behind schedule D) The budget is in surplus 63 / 100 What does a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) help with? A) Procurement of materials B) Managing stakeholder conflict C) Breaking down scope into manageable tasks D) Estimating software cost 64 / 100 What is the best definition of a stakeholder? A) Only project team B) Any person with a financial stake C) Anyone affected by or involved in the project D) Only the client 65 / 100 What is the output of risk identification? A) Contingency plan B) Risk Register C) Lessons log D) SWOT 66 / 100 Which project document defines success criteria? A) Risk Register B) Quality Policy C) Project Charter D) WBS 67 / 100 In a project, assumptions are: A) Guaranteed facts B) Approved budgets C) Factors considered true without proof D) Scope exclusions 68 / 100 What is the main purpose of lessons learned documentation? A) Reward vendors B) Prepare budgets C) Improve future projects D) Promote staff 69 / 100 What is a constraint in project management? A) Unlimited resource B) Benefit or gain C) Limiting factor like time, cost, or scope D) Deliverable 70 / 100 Which estimating technique uses previous project data? A) Top-down estimation B) Analogous estimating C) Parametric estimation D) Bottom-up estimation 71 / 100 What is the 100% Rule in WBS creation? A) WBS must be approved 100% by sponsors B) The top 100 tasks must be listed C) Each level must represent 100% of the parent D) Work packages must be 100% complete 72 / 100 What is the purpose of stakeholder engagement strategies? A) To reduce stakeholder count B) To develop a communication hierarchy C) To influence stakeholder expectations and involvement D) To sign contracts 73 / 100 What is the purpose of control limits on a control chart? A) Measure budget B) Define acceptable process variation C) Plan quality D) Reduce team size 74 / 100 Which tool helps define roles in a project? A) SWOT Chart B) RACI Matrix C) Gantt Chart D) Risk Register 75 / 100 In quality control, Six Sigma focuses on: A) Meeting budgets B) Communication clarity C) Reducing defects and variability D) Task delegation 76 / 100 In Agile, what is a story point? A) Actual hours B) Relative measure of effort C) Task duration D) Expense 77 / 100 What is progressive elaboration in WBS? A) Adding stakeholders B) Detailing tasks over time C) Increasing budget D) Reducing scope 78 / 100 What is a WBS dictionary? A) A glossary of Agile terms B) List of completed milestones C) Detailed description of each WBS component D) Budget breakdown 79 / 100 What is the role of a steering committee? A) Reviewing code B) Managing external vendors C) Providing strategic direction and oversight D) Editing project documents 80 / 100 What does the acronym RACI stand for? A) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed B) Required, Allocated, Checked, Implemented C) Reviewed, Approved, Controlled, Integrated D) Resource, Activity, Calendar, Input 81 / 100 The PMBOK Guide includes how many knowledge areas? A) 5 B) 10 C) 7 D) 12 82 / 100 What is a deliverable? A) A risk mitigation plan B) A required document C) A measurable and verifiable project output D) A budget report 83 / 100 A project “issue” is best described as: A) A planned cost overrun B) An unforeseen problem that has occurred C) A potential risk D) A stakeholder opinion 84 / 100 What is the baseline in project management? A) Historical data B) Original approved plan for scope, time, and cost C) Legal compliance list D) Backup server 85 / 100 What is a major risk of fixed-price contracts? A) Client bears more risk B) No deliverables defined C) Seller bears cost overruns D) Requires daily standups 86 / 100 What does a stakeholder cube visually represent? A) Budget estimates B) Schedule slippage C) Stakeholder influence, impact, and interest D) Task dependency 87 / 100 What is “fast tracking” in project scheduling? A) Cutting quality to reduce time B) Assigning more staff C) Performing tasks in parallel to shorten timeline D) Ignoring slack 88 / 100 Which technique helps prioritize features in Agile? A) Storyboarding B) MoSCoW C) Pareto analysis D) DMAIC 89 / 100 When is a kick-off meeting typically held? A) During closure B) Before monitoring C) At the beginning of the execution phase D) After lessons learned 90 / 100 Which KPI tool compares actual performance against planned? A) Monte Carlo B) SWOT C) Earned Value D) Budget Summary 91 / 100 What is the main benefit of time management in projects? A) Client satisfaction B) Cost increase C) Larger teams D) Quality reduction 92 / 100 What is stakeholder salience model based on? A) Power, urgency, legitimacy B) Cost, schedule, scope C) Buy-in, budget, timeline D) Communication, location, tools 93 / 100 What is “baseline variance”? A) Cost of scope change B) Difference between planned and actual values C) Risk forecast D) Change in team size 94 / 100 What does CPI > 1 indicate in Earned Value Management? A) Cost overrun B) Cost performance is on budget C) Project is under budget D) Project is behind schedule 95 / 100 What is the benefit of project benchmarking? A) Reusing past data B) Setting project budgets C) Comparing performance to industry best practices D) Shortening schedules 96 / 100 Which plan defines how changes will be managed? A) Risk management plan B) Schedule plan C) Change management plan D) Resource plan 97 / 100 What is Monte Carlo simulation used for in project risk? A) Determining leadership style B) Estimating outcome probability through random sampling C) Conflict resolution D) Quality improvement 98 / 100 Who sponsors and champions a project at the organizational level? A) Team Lead B) Functional Manager C) Project Sponsor D) Scrum Master 99 / 100 What is “progressive elaboration”? A) Outsourcing project planning B) Defining project details gradually as information becomes available C) Setting a fixed scope D) Finalizing plans before initiation 100 / 100 The goal of stakeholder communication is to: A) Avoid conflict B) Maintain involvement and satisfaction C) Minimize feedback D) Sign contracts Your score is 0% Restart quiz By Wordpress Quiz plugin
