123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100 PROJECT MANAGEMENT You are welcome to Lakewood Business School Examination Portal We are delighted to have you here and wish you the very best as you embark on an exciting journey toward a rewarding career with us. Online Examinations Our online assessments are designed to evaluate your understanding of the training materials and ensure your readiness for the next step in your professional development. Here's what you need to know: Format: The assessment consists of 100 multiple-choice questions. Pass Mark: A minimum score of 50% is required to pass. Instant Results: Your answers will be automatically graded, allowing you to immediately see your results. Retake Option: If you don’t pass on your first attempt, don’t worry! You can retake the exam and try again. Need Assistance? Whether you are currently enrolled on our platform or seeking information, our dedicated support team is here to help. Feel free to reach out to us with any inquiries at admission@lwbschool.org.uk Thank you for choosing Lakewood Business School. We are committed to supporting your growth and success. 1 / 100 In earned value, if SPI < 1, it means: A) The project is ahead of schedule B) The project is on time C) The project is behind schedule D) The budget is in surplus 2 / 100 What’s the primary goal of quality management? A) Minimize spending B) Increase documentation C) Ensure project meets requirements D) Assign tasks 3 / 100 What is the primary output of the closing phase? A) Project charter B) Signed contracts C) Final product, service, or result D) Resource onboarding 4 / 100 Project success is primarily defined by: A) Team size B) Document volume C) Meeting objectives on time, within budget, and to quality D) Manager opinion 5 / 100 In procurement, a Request for Proposal (RFP) is used to: A) Hire full-time staff B) Solicit bids from vendors C) Reduce taxes D) Track revenue 6 / 100 Which conflict resolution style seeks win-win outcomes? A) Avoidance B) Forcing C) Collaboration D) Withdrawal 7 / 100 Who facilitates Agile ceremonies and removes impediments? A) Product Owner B) Project Sponsor C) Scrum Master D) Stakeholder 8 / 100 The purpose of corrective actions in a project is to: A) Eliminate scope B) Align performance with plan C) Ignore change D) Delay delivery 9 / 100 When is quality planning performed? A) Execution B) Closure C) Planning D) Control 10 / 100 Which of the following best defines quality assurance? A) Identifying project risks B) Evaluating deliverables C) Ensuring quality processes are followed D) Preparing financial statements 11 / 100 In Agile, a “sprint” typically refers to: A) A documentation phase B) A testing method C) A fixed time period to complete tasks D) A release date 12 / 100 What is the baseline in project management? A) Historical data B) Original approved plan for scope, time, and cost C) Legal compliance list D) Backup server 13 / 100 What is a risk appetite? A) The maximum cost of a risk B) Tolerance level for risk an organization is willing to accept C) Probability of failure D) Appetite for contingency planning 14 / 100 What is the key benefit of using project templates? A) Cost estimation B) Reducing schedule C) Ensures consistency and saves time D) Avoiding stakeholders 15 / 100 Which estimating technique uses previous project data? A) Top-down estimation B) Analogous estimating C) Parametric estimation D) Bottom-up estimation 16 / 100 What does the term “gold plating” mean in project delivery? A) Delivering below standard B) Adding unnecessary features beyond scope C) Inflating costs D) Purchasing expensive tools 17 / 100 What is rolling wave planning? A) Making no plans B) Creating detailed plans for near-term, general for long-term C) Planning in reverse D) Planning by chance 18 / 100 What is the purpose of a change control board (CCB)? A) Manage vendor payments B) Review and approve project changes C) Conduct performance reviews D) Track lessons learned 19 / 100 The PMBOK defines project integration as: A) Team-building exercise B) Combining and coordinating processes and knowledge areas C) Simplifying reporting D) Avoiding stakeholder reviews 20 / 100 What is the Delphi technique used for? A) Software testing B) Conflict resolution C) Reaching expert consensus D) Scheduling 21 / 100 Who sponsors and champions a project at the organizational level? A) Team Lead B) Functional Manager C) Project Sponsor D) Scrum Master 22 / 100 What is a sprint retrospective? A) Client review B) Review of past lessons C) Meeting to reflect and improve next sprint D) Risk analysis 23 / 100 Which is a push communication method? A) Shared folder B) In-person meeting C) Email D) Phone call 24 / 100 Which document outlines how communication will occur in a project? A) Stakeholder register B) Communications Management Plan C) RACI chart D) Risk matrix 25 / 100 Which chart helps visualize resource allocation over time? A) Scatter plot B) Pareto chart C) Resource histogram D) Ishikawa diagram 26 / 100 Who is ultimately responsible for project success? A) Contractor B) Sponsor C) Project Manager D) Functional Manager 27 / 100 What does a control chart detect? A) Process stability B) Scope creep C) Budget loss D) Resource duplication 28 / 100 In Agile methodology, who is responsible for maximizing product value? A) Team Lead B) Scrum Master C) Product Owner D) Project Sponsor 29 / 100 How do you handle stakeholders with high power and low interest? A) Ignore them B) Manage closely C) Keep satisfied D) Monitor only 30 / 100 What is the main benefit of time management in projects? A) Client satisfaction B) Cost increase C) Larger teams D) Quality reduction 31 / 100 What is the outcome of the Monitor and Control phase? A) Adjusting team structure B) Project deliverables C) Measuring and reporting performance D) Hiring consultants 32 / 100 In a project, assumptions are: A) Guaranteed facts B) Approved budgets C) Factors considered true without proof D) Scope exclusions 33 / 100 What does a Project Scope Statement include? A) Team salaries B) Deliverables, assumptions, and constraints C) Invoice list D) Gantt chart 34 / 100 What does the Balanced Scorecard track? A) Payroll B) Risk tolerance C) Strategic performance across four perspectives D) Earned value 35 / 100 Which methodology emphasizes iterative work cycles? A) PRINCE2 B) Waterfall C) Agile D) Critical Path 36 / 100 What is a procurement audit? A) A cost-benefit analysis B) A review of procurement processes and contract compliance C) A labor union report D) Marketing tool 37 / 100 Which contract type adjusts for market inflation? A) Time and Materials B) Fixed Price C) Cost Plus Incentive D) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment 38 / 100 Which of the following is not part of the project life cycle? A) Planning B) Executing C) Resource onboarding D) Closing 39 / 100 In Agile, “user stories” are written from the perspective of: A) The developer B) The project manager C) The end-user D) The sponsor 40 / 100 Which PM certification is globally recognized from PMI? A) CAPM B) PMP C) Six Sigma Black Belt D) ISO 9001 41 / 100 Which project document defines success criteria? A) Risk Register B) Quality Policy C) Project Charter D) WBS 42 / 100 What does CPI > 1 indicate in Earned Value Management? A) Cost overrun B) Cost performance is on budget C) Project is under budget D) Project is behind schedule 43 / 100 What is a stakeholder engagement plan? A) Strategy for managing salaries B) Framework for how to involve stakeholders C) Hiring document D) Recruitment tool 44 / 100 What is a functional organizational structure? A) Project teams report only to the sponsor B) Project manager has the highest authority C) Team members report to departmental heads D) Cross-functional roles are dominant 45 / 100 What’s the key benefit of bottom-up estimating? A) Inaccurate assumptions B) Greater detail and accuracy C) Reduced cost D) Faster planning 46 / 100 Which method involves comparing best practices across industries? A) Benchmarking B) Bottom-up estimation C) WBS rolling D) Cost variance 47 / 100 In Agile, the team’s velocity refers to: A) Number of hours worked B) Average story points completed per sprint C) Speed of software installation D) Task failures 48 / 100 What is parametric estimating? A) Based on expert guess B) Based on historical analogy C) Based on statistical relationships and data D) Based on team size 49 / 100 What is a RAID log used for? A) Storing design specs B) Managing risks, assumptions, issues, and dependencies C) Registering attendance D) Logging invoices 50 / 100 What does the “S” in OGSM stand for? A) Stakeholders B) Scope C) Strategies D) Sustainability 51 / 100 What is a milestone in project scheduling? A) A type of risk B) A significant event or achievement C) A task description D) A project tool 52 / 100 Who approves the project closure? A) Project coordinator B) Team lead C) Sponsor or client D) Functional manager 53 / 100 What does “scope baseline” include? A) Risk register B) Scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary C) Procurement terms D) Resource tracker 54 / 100 In contract types, which transfers most risk to the vendor? A) Cost-reimbursable B) Time and Materials C) Fixed-price D) Retainer 55 / 100 What is a strong matrix structure? A) Project manager has full control B) Functional managers dominate C) PM has no authority D) Multiple sponsors 56 / 100 What is the primary purpose of project integration management? A) Manage financial systems B) Combine and coordinate all project elements C) Design quality systems D) Track employee hours 57 / 100 The critical chain method focuses on: A) Employee training B) Minimizing stakeholder influence C) Resource availability and task buffers D) Quality control 58 / 100 What is the main benefit of project closure documentation? A) Reduces conflict B) Ensures lessons are captured and used C) Increases budget D) Starts new procurement 59 / 100 Which of these is not one of the five project phases? A) Execution B) Risk Analysis C) Planning D) Closing 60 / 100 Lessons learned” are recorded in which phase? A) Planning B) Monitoring C) Execution D) Closing 61 / 100 What is “progressive elaboration”? A) Outsourcing project planning B) Defining project details gradually as information becomes available C) Setting a fixed scope D) Finalizing plans before initiation 62 / 100 What is the primary purpose of stakeholder analysis? A) To design the project budget B) To identify stakeholder influence and interests C) To assign job titles D) To generate project requirements 63 / 100 The PMBOK Guide includes how many knowledge areas? A) 5 B) 10 C) 7 D) 12 64 / 100 What is “baseline variance”? A) Cost of scope change B) Difference between planned and actual values C) Risk forecast D) Change in team size 65 / 100 Which style focuses on inspiration and team vision? A) Transformational Leadership B) Transactional Leadership C) Laissez-Faire D) Authoritarian 66 / 100 When is a kick-off meeting typically held? A) During closure B) Before monitoring C) At the beginning of the execution phase D) After lessons learned 67 / 100 What is a key responsibility of the project team during execution? A) Approving scope B) Reporting progress C) Funding the project D) Approving invoices 68 / 100 What’s the purpose of the risk register? A) List vendors B) Store team data C) Identify and monitor project risks D) Archive contracts 69 / 100 What is the main purpose of a project phase review? A) To assign staff B) To evaluate performance before moving to the next phase C) To change the WBS D) To close contracts 70 / 100 What is progressive elaboration in WBS? A) Adding stakeholders B) Detailing tasks over time C) Increasing budget D) Reducing scope 71 / 100 In which phase is project scope finalized? A) Initiation B) Execution C) Planning D) Closing 72 / 100 What is the primary goal of the initiation phase in project management? A) Execute plans B) Develop a WBS C) Define the project at a broad level D) Close contracts 73 / 100 What is “fast tracking” in project scheduling? A) Cutting quality to reduce time B) Assigning more staff C) Performing tasks in parallel to shorten timeline D) Ignoring slack 74 / 100 What is the first step in risk management? A) Quantify risks B) Create response plan C) Identify risks D) Allocate reserves 75 / 100 What is a stakeholder register used for? A) Tracking employee timesheets B) Listing project scope C) Recording stakeholder details and expectations D) Storing lessons learned 76 / 100 The Pareto principle in quality suggests: A) 20% of causes lead to 80% of effects B) All defects are equal C) Quality can’t be measured D) 100% perfection is required 77 / 100 What is the output of risk identification? A) Contingency plan B) Risk Register C) Lessons log D) SWOT 78 / 100 What is the 100% Rule in WBS creation? A) WBS must be approved 100% by sponsors B) The top 100 tasks must be listed C) Each level must represent 100% of the parent D) Work packages must be 100% complete 79 / 100 Which of the following can be considered an internal enterprise environmental factor? A) Government regulations B) Market trends C) Organizational culture D) Climate change 80 / 100 What is a constraint in project management? A) Unlimited resource B) Benefit or gain C) Limiting factor like time, cost, or scope D) Deliverable 81 / 100 What is the best way to handle scope creep? A) Ignore minor changes B) Fire team members C) Enforce change control process D) Let client decide scope 82 / 100 In resource planning, which is most crucial for task fit? A) Age of the employee B) Communication speed C) Skill and experience D) Years in project team 83 / 100 What is a key tool for team motivation in projects? A) Autocratic leadership B) Performance reviews C) Recognition and rewards D) High workloads 84 / 100 Which technique helps prioritize features in Agile? A) Storyboarding B) MoSCoW C) Pareto analysis D) DMAIC 85 / 100 In quality control, Six Sigma focuses on: A) Meeting budgets B) Communication clarity C) Reducing defects and variability D) Task delegation 86 / 100 What is the purpose of control limits on a control chart? A) Measure budget B) Define acceptable process variation C) Plan quality D) Reduce team size 87 / 100 What’s the role of the project management plan? A) Manage external vendors B) Direct project execution and control C) Write code D) Replace contracts 88 / 100 The main focus of procurement management is: A) Hiring B) Vendor and contract handling C) Project audits D) Sprint planning 89 / 100 What’s the key value in Agile? A) Processes over people B) Comprehensive documentation C) Responding to change over following a plan D) Contract negotiation 90 / 100 Who is responsible for managing interdependencies in a program? A) Project coordinator B) Portfolio analyst C) Program manager D) Functional head 91 / 100 What is the purpose of stakeholder engagement strategies? A) To reduce stakeholder count B) To develop a communication hierarchy C) To influence stakeholder expectations and involvement D) To sign contracts 92 / 100 Which Agile artifact shows completed work? A) Sprint backlog B) Burndown chart C) Increment D) Story point board 93 / 100 Which document helps track schedule performance? A) Project charter B) Activity list C) Gantt chart D) Work authorization 94 / 100 In earned value management, what does EV stand for? A) Estimated Variance B) Earned Value C) Estimated Value D) Economic Volume 95 / 100 Which technique is used for risk probability and impact assessment? A) Control chart B) Scatter diagram C) Risk matrix D) Monte Carlo 96 / 100 What does a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) help with? A) Procurement of materials B) Managing stakeholder conflict C) Breaking down scope into manageable tasks D) Estimating software cost 97 / 100 What is a lag in project scheduling? A) Early task start B) Time between dependent activities C) Activity delay caused by errors D) Risk exposure 98 / 100 What is float (slack) in project scheduling? A) Time an activity can delay without delaying the project B) Time allocated to risk C) Budget adjustment D) Resource downtime 99 / 100 What is a common risk response strategy? A) Transfer B) Estimate C) Fast-track D) Iterate 100 / 100 The PMBOK Guide defines how many process groups? A) 3 B) 7 C) 5 D) 10 Your score is 0% Restart quiz By Wordpress Quiz plugin
