123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100 PROJECT MANAGEMENT You are welcome to Lakewood Business School Examination Portal We are delighted to have you here and wish you the very best as you embark on an exciting journey toward a rewarding career with us. Online Examinations Our online assessments are designed to evaluate your understanding of the training materials and ensure your readiness for the next step in your professional development. Here's what you need to know: Format: The assessment consists of 100 multiple-choice questions. Pass Mark: A minimum score of 50% is required to pass. Instant Results: Your answers will be automatically graded, allowing you to immediately see your results. Retake Option: If you don’t pass on your first attempt, don’t worry! You can retake the exam and try again. Need Assistance? Whether you are currently enrolled on our platform or seeking information, our dedicated support team is here to help. Feel free to reach out to us with any inquiries at admission@lwbschool.org.uk Thank you for choosing Lakewood Business School. We are committed to supporting your growth and success. 1 / 100 What is the primary purpose of stakeholder analysis? A) To design the project budget B) To identify stakeholder influence and interests C) To assign job titles D) To generate project requirements 2 / 100 Which technique is used for risk probability and impact assessment? A) Control chart B) Scatter diagram C) Risk matrix D) Monte Carlo 3 / 100 In project time management, what does a lead indicate? A) Delay in predecessor B) Overlapping successor task before predecessor completes C) Cost escalation D) Resource leveling 4 / 100 What is “baseline variance”? A) Cost of scope change B) Difference between planned and actual values C) Risk forecast D) Change in team size 5 / 100 What’s the role of the project management plan? A) Manage external vendors B) Direct project execution and control C) Write code D) Replace contracts 6 / 100 What is a benefit of stakeholder mapping? A) Assigning job roles B) Prioritizing engagement strategy C) Preparing WBS D) Creating budget 7 / 100 Which chart helps visualize resource allocation over time? A) Scatter plot B) Pareto chart C) Resource histogram D) Ishikawa diagram 8 / 100 Which document captures the rationale, objectives, and goals of a project? A) Issue Log B) Business Case C) WBS Dictionary D) Risk Register 9 / 100 What is the benefit of project benchmarking? A) Reusing past data B) Setting project budgets C) Comparing performance to industry best practices D) Shortening schedules 10 / 100 Which document is usually produced during the initiating phase? A) WBS B) Stakeholder Register C) Schedule Baseline D) Quality Checklist 11 / 100 What does a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) help with? A) Procurement of materials B) Managing stakeholder conflict C) Breaking down scope into manageable tasks D) Estimating software cost 12 / 100 What’s a risk trigger? A) A budget variance B) A stakeholder conflict C) An indicator that a risk is about to occur D) A contract clause 13 / 100 Project success is primarily defined by: A) Team size B) Document volume C) Meeting objectives on time, within budget, and to quality D) Manager opinion 14 / 100 In Agile, the team’s velocity refers to: A) Number of hours worked B) Average story points completed per sprint C) Speed of software installation D) Task failures 15 / 100 What is the critical path in a project? A) The longest path determining project duration B) The cheapest tasks C) Tasks that can be skipped D) Low priority deliverables 16 / 100 The PMBOK Guide defines how many process groups? A) 3 B) 7 C) 5 D) 10 17 / 100 Which method involves comparing best practices across industries? A) Benchmarking B) Bottom-up estimation C) WBS rolling D) Cost variance 18 / 100 Which Agile artifact shows completed work? A) Sprint backlog B) Burndown chart C) Increment D) Story point board 19 / 100 Which methodology emphasizes iterative work cycles? A) PRINCE2 B) Waterfall C) Agile D) Critical Path 20 / 100 When is quality planning performed? A) Execution B) Closure C) Planning D) Control 21 / 100 What is a risk appetite? A) The maximum cost of a risk B) Tolerance level for risk an organization is willing to accept C) Probability of failure D) Appetite for contingency planning 22 / 100 What is the 100% Rule in WBS creation? A) WBS must be approved 100% by sponsors B) The top 100 tasks must be listed C) Each level must represent 100% of the parent D) Work packages must be 100% complete 23 / 100 What is a WBS dictionary? A) A glossary of Agile terms B) List of completed milestones C) Detailed description of each WBS component D) Budget breakdown 24 / 100 What’s the purpose of the risk register? A) List vendors B) Store team data C) Identify and monitor project risks D) Archive contracts 25 / 100 What does “scope baseline” include? A) Risk register B) Scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary C) Procurement terms D) Resource tracker 26 / 100 The PMBOK defines project integration as: A) Team-building exercise B) Combining and coordinating processes and knowledge areas C) Simplifying reporting D) Avoiding stakeholder reviews 27 / 100 The purpose of corrective actions in a project is to: A) Eliminate scope B) Align performance with plan C) Ignore change D) Delay delivery 28 / 100 What is the role of a steering committee? A) Reviewing code B) Managing external vendors C) Providing strategic direction and oversight D) Editing project documents 29 / 100 What is a key tool for team motivation in projects? A) Autocratic leadership B) Performance reviews C) Recognition and rewards D) High workloads 30 / 100 What is rolling wave planning? A) Making no plans B) Creating detailed plans for near-term, general for long-term C) Planning in reverse D) Planning by chance 31 / 100 What is crashing in project management? A) A project failure B) Adding resources to speed up tasks C) Reverting to earlier versions D) Breaking the budget 32 / 100 What is the main benefit of project closure documentation? A) Reduces conflict B) Ensures lessons are captured and used C) Increases budget D) Starts new procurement 33 / 100 What is a milestone in project scheduling? A) A type of risk B) A significant event or achievement C) A task description D) A project tool 34 / 100 What is “progressive elaboration”? A) Outsourcing project planning B) Defining project details gradually as information becomes available C) Setting a fixed scope D) Finalizing plans before initiation 35 / 100 Which tool helps define roles in a project? A) SWOT Chart B) RACI Matrix C) Gantt Chart D) Risk Register 36 / 100 What is parametric estimating? A) Based on expert guess B) Based on historical analogy C) Based on statistical relationships and data D) Based on team size 37 / 100 What is a lag in project scheduling? A) Early task start B) Time between dependent activities C) Activity delay caused by errors D) Risk exposure 38 / 100 What is a strong matrix structure? A) Project manager has full control B) Functional managers dominate C) PM has no authority D) Multiple sponsors 39 / 100 What is the baseline in project management? A) Historical data B) Original approved plan for scope, time, and cost C) Legal compliance list D) Backup server 40 / 100 Which is a push communication method? A) Shared folder B) In-person meeting C) Email D) Phone call 41 / 100 What is the key benefit of using project templates? A) Cost estimation B) Reducing schedule C) Ensures consistency and saves time D) Avoiding stakeholders 42 / 100 What is a stakeholder register used for? A) Tracking employee timesheets B) Listing project scope C) Recording stakeholder details and expectations D) Storing lessons learned 43 / 100 What is timeboxing in Agile? A) Estimating in units B) Fixing time for activities with flexible scope C) Scheduling only high-priority tasks D) Locking feature requirements 44 / 100 What is the purpose of a change control board (CCB)? A) Manage vendor payments B) Review and approve project changes C) Conduct performance reviews D) Track lessons learned 45 / 100 What is a procurement audit? A) A cost-benefit analysis B) A review of procurement processes and contract compliance C) A labor union report D) Marketing tool 46 / 100 In resource planning, which is most crucial for task fit? A) Age of the employee B) Communication speed C) Skill and experience D) Years in project team 47 / 100 In Agile methodology, who is responsible for maximizing product value? A) Team Lead B) Scrum Master C) Product Owner D) Project Sponsor 48 / 100 The goal of stakeholder communication is to: A) Avoid conflict B) Maintain involvement and satisfaction C) Minimize feedback D) Sign contracts 49 / 100 What’s the difference between risks and issues? A) Risks are future threats; issues are current problems B) Issues are worse than risks C) Issues are planned D) No difference 50 / 100 What does the “S” in OGSM stand for? A) Stakeholders B) Scope C) Strategies D) Sustainability 51 / 100 Which of the following is not part of the project life cycle? A) Planning B) Executing C) Resource onboarding D) Closing 52 / 100 What is a common risk response strategy? A) Transfer B) Estimate C) Fast-track D) Iterate 53 / 100 How do you handle stakeholders with high power and low interest? A) Ignore them B) Manage closely C) Keep satisfied D) Monitor only 54 / 100 What’s the primary goal of quality management? A) Minimize spending B) Increase documentation C) Ensure project meets requirements D) Assign tasks 55 / 100 Who approves the project closure? A) Project coordinator B) Team lead C) Sponsor or client D) Functional manager 56 / 100 The Pareto principle in quality suggests: A) 20% of causes lead to 80% of effects B) All defects are equal C) Quality can’t be measured D) 100% perfection is required 57 / 100 What is the Delphi technique used for? A) Software testing B) Conflict resolution C) Reaching expert consensus D) Scheduling 58 / 100 Which PM certification is globally recognized from PMI? A) CAPM B) PMP C) Six Sigma Black Belt D) ISO 9001 59 / 100 A project “issue” is best described as: A) A planned cost overrun B) An unforeseen problem that has occurred C) A potential risk D) A stakeholder opinion 60 / 100 What is the output of risk identification? A) Contingency plan B) Risk Register C) Lessons log D) SWOT 61 / 100 What is the best way to handle scope creep? A) Ignore minor changes B) Fire team members C) Enforce change control process D) Let client decide scope 62 / 100 What is the main output of project integration management? A) Cost savings B) A unified project plan C) Risk reports D) Vendor selection 63 / 100 Which of the following can be considered an internal enterprise environmental factor? A) Government regulations B) Market trends C) Organizational culture D) Climate change 64 / 100 What is a stakeholder engagement plan? A) Strategy for managing salaries B) Framework for how to involve stakeholders C) Hiring document D) Recruitment tool 65 / 100 What is a project milestone chart used for? A) Assigning team roles B) Showing project budget C) Tracking significant events D) Listing quality goals 66 / 100 What is Monte Carlo simulation used for in project risk? A) Determining leadership style B) Estimating outcome probability through random sampling C) Conflict resolution D) Quality improvement 67 / 100 Which scheduling technique identifies task relationships? A) MoSCoW B) Critical Path Method (CPM) C) Earned Value D) SWOT 68 / 100 What is the best definition of a stakeholder? A) Only project team B) Any person with a financial stake C) Anyone affected by or involved in the project D) Only the client 69 / 100 Who facilitates Agile ceremonies and removes impediments? A) Product Owner B) Project Sponsor C) Scrum Master D) Stakeholder 70 / 100 Which of the following best defines quality assurance? A) Identifying project risks B) Evaluating deliverables C) Ensuring quality processes are followed D) Preparing financial statements 71 / 100 What is float (slack) in project scheduling? A) Time an activity can delay without delaying the project B) Time allocated to risk C) Budget adjustment D) Resource downtime 72 / 100 What is the responsibility of a project coordinator? A) Managing multiple programs B) Supporting project managers with administrative duties C) Authorizing budgets D) Conducting audits 73 / 100 What’s the key benefit of bottom-up estimating? A) Inaccurate assumptions B) Greater detail and accuracy C) Reduced cost D) Faster planning 74 / 100 Which phase involves acquiring and managing project team members? A) Planning B) Initiation C) Executing D) Closing 75 / 100 In quality control, Six Sigma focuses on: A) Meeting budgets B) Communication clarity C) Reducing defects and variability D) Task delegation 76 / 100 What does the acronym RACI stand for? A) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed B) Required, Allocated, Checked, Implemented C) Reviewed, Approved, Controlled, Integrated D) Resource, Activity, Calendar, Input 77 / 100 What is the purpose of control limits on a control chart? A) Measure budget B) Define acceptable process variation C) Plan quality D) Reduce team size 78 / 100 What is the primary purpose of project integration management? A) Manage financial systems B) Combine and coordinate all project elements C) Design quality systems D) Track employee hours 79 / 100 What type of dependency is mandatory and legally or contractually required? A) Discretionary B) External C) Mandatory D) Optional 80 / 100 What does a burn-down chart show? A) Quality assurance metrics B) Risks by likelihood C) Work remaining in a sprint D) Contractual obligations 81 / 100 Which project document defines success criteria? A) Risk Register B) Quality Policy C) Project Charter D) WBS 82 / 100 Which technique helps prioritize features in Agile? A) Storyboarding B) MoSCoW C) Pareto analysis D) DMAIC 83 / 100 When is a kick-off meeting typically held? A) During closure B) Before monitoring C) At the beginning of the execution phase D) After lessons learned 84 / 100 Which contract type adjusts for market inflation? A) Time and Materials B) Fixed Price C) Cost Plus Incentive D) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment 85 / 100 What does a stakeholder cube visually represent? A) Budget estimates B) Schedule slippage C) Stakeholder influence, impact, and interest D) Task dependency 86 / 100 Who determines project success criteria? A) Functional manager B) Sponsor and stakeholders C) Procurement officer D) Team lead 87 / 100 In Agile, “user stories” are written from the perspective of: A) The developer B) The project manager C) The end-user D) The sponsor 88 / 100 Which conflict resolution style seeks win-win outcomes? A) Avoidance B) Forcing C) Collaboration D) Withdrawal 89 / 100 What is a RAID log used for? A) Storing design specs B) Managing risks, assumptions, issues, and dependencies C) Registering attendance D) Logging invoices 90 / 100 What is the first step in risk management? A) Quantify risks B) Create response plan C) Identify risks D) Allocate reserves 91 / 100 What is progressive elaboration in WBS? A) Adding stakeholders B) Detailing tasks over time C) Increasing budget D) Reducing scope 92 / 100 Who owns the product backlog in Scrum? A) Scrum Master B) Stakeholder C) Product Owner D) Project Coordinator 93 / 100 In which phase is project scope finalized? A) Initiation B) Execution C) Planning D) Closing 94 / 100 What does a Project Scope Statement include? A) Team salaries B) Deliverables, assumptions, and constraints C) Invoice list D) Gantt chart 95 / 100 Which of these is not one of the five project phases? A) Execution B) Risk Analysis C) Planning D) Closing 96 / 100 What is the purpose of stakeholder engagement strategies? A) To reduce stakeholder count B) To develop a communication hierarchy C) To influence stakeholder expectations and involvement D) To sign contracts 97 / 100 The critical chain method focuses on: A) Employee training B) Minimizing stakeholder influence C) Resource availability and task buffers D) Quality control 98 / 100 What is a project charter? A) A risk template B) A procurement policy C) A document that formally authorizes the project D) A Gantt chart 99 / 100 Which plan defines how changes will be managed? A) Risk management plan B) Schedule plan C) Change management plan D) Resource plan 100 / 100 In earned value management, what does EV stand for? A) Estimated Variance B) Earned Value C) Estimated Value D) Economic Volume Your score is 0% Restart quiz By Wordpress Quiz plugin
